Any player who tilts their own ball, which then results in a tilt warning given to the following player will not have any consequences for the first offense. The player with the warning will be allowed to continue play as normal, or choose to have the ball played on a fresh game.
If the player elects to have the ball played on a fresh game, what is the standard procedure it this happens on ball 1 or 2. Do you tilt the game and then plunge (risking another danger through maybe)? Do you take the glass off, qualify the playfield minimally and drain? Do you just plunge?
You could, but you risk changing state in a negative way (like starting a multiball that canāt be played). Maybe that is part of the consequences of the choice of fresh ball, that is why I am interested in what people do.
If the keys are available I would go this route and subtract the points scored.
If the keys are not available, Iād plunge and subtract the points scored.
It would be interesting if the plunge started a key feature though. Would player then have the option to take control and play it out with the inherited warnings,or would it have to be left unplayed since they already chose the fresh ball option? Iād rule the latter.
Typically playing a ball on a fresh game is simply done on āball 1ā, unless thereās some guaranteed feature that the player missed on the original game played.
Best examples that Iāve run into in the past . . .
Ball 3 on Dracula because the player had not yet played Mist MB
Ball 3 or 5 on games that have āDouble Bonusā for that ball. This happens a bunch on EMās.
So at circuit finals last year when Keithās BSD game went straight to bonus and his flippers diedā¦he had already passed the point of where mist would be applicable, so when they added on his bonus ball they just started ball one instead?
Going from a general question to a specific instance (feel free to move into a new topic if this is too much of a pivot), there was a danger-through at INDISC semifinals this year on Wipeout. Player 1 tilted at the end of their ball, and player 2 got a double danger. A TD discussed the situation, which I didnāt overhear, and I believe the resolution was that player 1 receives a warning and player 2 plays on.
Reading this rule it sounds like player 1 was incorrectly given a warning, right? Unless I missed an earlier danger-through.
Player 2 should have been given a choice of playing on or getting a compensation ball. Does anyone know whether this option was given?
As the rule is written, I donāt think a warning is considered a consequence. So first offense warning (no consequence). Second offense I assume zero for that game.
āAny player who tilts their own ball, which then results in a tilt warning given to the following player will not have any consequences for the first offense. The player with the warning will be allowed to continue play as normal, or choose to have the ball played on a fresh game. A second offense by the same player anytime throughout the tournament, and it will be treated as a tilt of another playerās ball, with the rules from the previous paragraph being enforced.ā
Well since you brought it up, no the option was not given. Many people where insisting to Jim that they knew the correct ruling and it was play on. I looked up the rule while the ball was being played, and let Jim read it afterwards.
The warning was correctly given (as you can see in the full quote).
It is worth pointing out, the reason people thought this is because it is usually the case, but there is the player error exception.
Loss of Tilt warnings, without loss of ball, shall not be considered a major malfunction. If the loss of Tilt warnings was caused by another player, please see the āPlayer Errorsā section for how that situation will be handled.
